moviesetc4ever moviesetc4ever
  • 06-01-2018
  • Mathematics
contestada

Is it true that since sin^2(x) + cos^2(x)=1, then sin(x) + cos(x) = 1? Explain

Respuesta :

icedipping
icedipping icedipping
  • 06-01-2018
No. 

An easy counterexample is sin(30°) + cos(30°) which is more than 1.
Answer Link
Аноним Аноним
  • 06-01-2018
No it is not true because the 2 expressions are not equal nor is sin^2 x + cos^2 x equal to the square of sin x + cos x.
Answer Link

Otras preguntas

gradully becomewing louder in music terms'
Why is it important to be able to tell when an author is arguing for a point of view?
What is the maximum mass of P2I4 that can be prepared from 8.80g of P4O6 and 12.37g of iodine according to the reaction: 5P4O6 +8I2 ---> 4P2I4 +3P4O10
42 less than x is -50.
how do you get a girl that you like to kiss you in 6th grade
How many grams are there in 7.5 X10^23 molecules of H2SO4?
An independent regulatory _____ is a government agency in charge of regulating part of the nation’s economy.
what language did james madison use on the bill of rights
Let's play a game, but if you reply incorrectly, *you have to promise me that you will put, as profile picture, a frog for at least 48 hours.* Later you will se
Women need ________ % essential fat for reproductive system related fat deposits.